Computer Science Study Materials for Competitive Exams

Sample Questions, Previous Year Solved Papers, Study Materials For Competitive Examinations Like UGC NET, SET And GATE Computer Science.

Thursday, 6 November 2014

UGC NET Solved Computer Science Paper III June 2014 - Part 1

1.       Beam-penetration and shadow-mask are the two basic techniques for producing color displays with a CRT.
Which of the following is not true ?
I. The beam-penetration is used with random scan monitors.
II. Shadow-mask is used in raster scan systems.
III. Beam-penetration method is better than shadow-mask method.
IV. Shadow-mask method is better than beam-penetration method.
(A) I and II         (B) II and III
(C) III only         (D) IV only
Answer: C
2.       Line caps are used for adjusting the shape of the line ends to give them a better appearance. Various kinds of line caps used are
(A) Butt cap and sharp cap
(B) Butt cap and round cap
(C) Butt cap, sharp cap and round cap
(D) Butt cap, round cap and projecting square cap
Answer: D
3.       Given below are certain output primitives and their associated attributes. Match each primitive with its corresponding attributes :
List – I               List – II
a. Line               i. Type, Size, Color
b. Fill Area        ii. Color, Size, Font
c. Text                iii. Style, Color, Pattern
d. Marker           iv. Type, Width, Color
Codes :
  a    b   c   d
(A) i    ii   iii   iv
(B) ii    i   iii   iv
(C) iv  iii   ii   i
(D) iii   i   iv   ii
Answer: C
4.       Consider a window bounded by the lines : x = 0; y= 0; x = 5 and y = 3. The line segment joining (–1, 0) and (4, 5), if clipped against this window will connect the points
(A) (0, 1) and (2, 3)
(B) (0, 1) and (3, 3)
(C) (0, 1) and (4, 3)
(D) (0, 1) and (3, 2)
Answer: A
5.       Which of the following color models are defined with three primary colors ?
(A) RGB and HSV color models
(B) CMY and HSV color models
(C) HSV and HLS color models
(D) RGB and CMY color models
Answer: D
6.       In a digital transmission, the receiver clock is 0.1 percent faster than the sender clock. How many extra bits per second does the receiver receive if the data rate is 1 Mbps ?
(A) 10 bps         (B) 100 bps
(C) 1000 bps     (D) 10000 bps
Answer: C
7.       Given U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
A = {(3, 0.7), (5, 1), (6, 0.8)}
then A~ will be : (where ~ ® complement)
(A) {(4, 0.7), (2, 1), (1, 0.8)}
(B) {(4, 0.3), (5, 0), (6, 0.2) }
(C) {(1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 0.3), (4, 1), (6, 0.2), (7, 1)}
(D) {(3, 0.3), (6.0.2)}
Answer: C
8.       Consider a fuzzy set old as defined below
Old = {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2), (40, 0.4), (50, 0.6), (60, 0.8), (70, 1), (80, 1)}
Then the alpha-cut for alpha = 0.4 for the set old will be
(A) {(40, 0.4)}
(B) {50, 60, 70, 80}
(C) {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2)}
(D) {(20, 0), (30, 0), (40, 1), (50, 1), (60, 1), (70, 1), (80, 1)}
Answer: D
9.       Perceptron learning, Delta learning and LMS learning are learning methods which falls under the category of
(A) Error correction learning – learning with a teacher
(B) Reinforcement learning – learning with a critic
(C) Hebbian learning
(D) Competitive learning – learning without a teacher
Answer: A
10.    Code blocks allow many algorithms to be implemented with the following parameters :
(A) clarity, elegance, performance
(B) clarity, elegance, efficiency
(C) elegance, performance, execution
(D) execution, clarity, performance
Answer: B
11.    Match the following with respect to the jump statements :
List – I                           List – II
a. return                         i. The conditional test and increment portions
b. goto                            ii. A value associated with it
c. break                          iii. Requires a label for operation
d. continue                   iv. An exit from only the innermost loop
Codes :
      a   b    c   d
(A) ii    iii   iv   i
(B) iii   iv   i    ii
(C) iv   iii   ii   i
(D) iv   iii   i    ii
Answer: A
12.    The control string in C++ consists of three important classifications of characters
(A) Escape sequence characters, Format specifiers and Whitespace characters
(B) Special characters, White-space characters and Non-white space characters
(C) Format specifiers, White-space characters and Non-white space characters
(D) Special characters, White-space characters and Format specifiers
Answer: C
13.    Match the following with respect to I/O classes in object oriented programming :
List – I               List – II
a. fopen()          i. returns end of file
b. fclose()          ii. return for any problem report
c. ferror()            iii. returns 0
d. feof()              iv. returns a file pointer
Codes :
      a    b    c    d
(A) iv    i     ii    iii
(B) iii    i    iv   ii
(C) ii    iii   iv    i
(D) iv   iii   i     ii
Answer: A
14.    Which one of the following describes the syntax of prolog program ?
I. Rules and facts are terminated by full stop (.)
II. Rules and facts are terminated by semicolon (;)
III. Variables names must start with upper case alphabets.
IV. Variables names must start with lower case alphabets.
Codes :
(A) I, II                (B) III, IV
(C) I, III               (D) II, IV
Answer: C
15.    Let L be any language. Define even (W) as the strings obtained by extracting from W the letters in the even-numbered positions and even(L) = {even (W) | W Î L}. We define another language Chop (L) by removing the two leftmost symbols of every string in L given by Chop(L) = {W | n W Î L, with | n | = 2}. If L is regular language then
(A) even(L) is regular and Chop(L) is not regular.
(B) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are regular.
(C) even(L) is not regular and Chop(L) is regular.
(D) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are not regular.
Answer: B
16.    Software testing is
(A) the process of establishing that errors are not present.
(B) the process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is supposed to do.
(C) the process of executing a program to show that it is working as per specifications.
(D) the process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors.
Answer: D
17.    Assume that a program will experience 200 failures in infinite time. It has now experienced 100 failures. The initial failure intensity was 20 failures/CPU hr. Then the current failure intensity will be
(A) 5 failures/CPU hr
(B) 10 failures/CPU hr.
(C) 20 failures/CPU hr.
(D) 40 failures/CPU hr.
Answer: B
18.    Consider a project with the following functional units :
Number of user inputs = 50
Number of user outputs = 40
Number of user enquiries = 35
Number of user files = 06
Number of external interfaces = 04
Assuming all complexity adjustment factors and weighing factors as average, the function points for the project will be
(A) 135   (B) 722
(C) 675 (D) 672
Answer: D
19.    Match the following :
List – I                           List – II
a. Correctness              i. The extent to which a software tolerates the
unexpected problems
b. Accuracy                   ii. The extent to which a software meets its
c. Robustness              iii. The extent to which a software has specified
d. Completeness         iv. Meeting specifications with precision
Codes :
      a    b   c    d
(A) ii    iv    i    iii
(B) i     ii    iii   iv
(C) ii    i     iv   iii
(D) iv  ii     i     iii
Answer: A
20.    Which one of the following is not a definition of error ?
(A) It refers to the discrepancy between a computed, observed or measured value and the true, specified or theoretically correct value.
(B) It refers to the actual output of a software and the correct output.
(C) It refers to a condition that causes a system to fail.
(D) It refers to human action that results in software containing a defect or fault.
Answer: C
21.    Which one of the following is not a key process area in CMM level 5 ?
(A) Defect prevention
(B) Process change management
(C) Software product engineering
(D) Technology change management
Answer: C
22.    Consider the following relational schemas for a library database :
Book (Title, Author, Catalog_no, Publisher, Year, Price)
Collection(Title, Author, Catalog_no)
with the following functional dependencies :
I. Title, Author ® Catalog_no
II. Catalog_no ® Title, Author, Publisher, Year
III. Publisher, Title, Year ® Price
Assume (Author, Title) is the key for both schemas. Which one of the following is true ?
(A) Both Book and Collection are in BCNF.
(B) Both Book and Collection are in 3NF.
(C) Book is in 2NF and Collection in 3NF.
(D) Both Book and Collection are in 2NF.
Answer: C
23.    Specialization Lattice stands for
(A) An entity type can participate as a subclass in only one specialization.
(B) An entity type can participate as a subclass in more than one specialization.
(C) An entity type that can participate in one specialization.
(D) An entity type that can participate in one generalization.
Answer: B
24.    Match the following :
List – I                                                   List – II
a. Timeout ordering protocol              i. Wait for graph
b. Deadlock prevention                      ii. Roll back
c. Deadlock detection                         iii. Wait-die scheme
d. Deadlock recovery                          iv. Thomas Write Rule
Codes :
      a   b   c   d
(A) iv   iii  i     ii
(B) iii   ii   iv   i
(C) ii    i   iv   iii
(D) iii   i   iv   iii
Answer: A
25.    Consider the schema R = {S, T, U, V} and the dependencies S ® T, T ® U, U ® V and V ® S If R = (R1 and R2) be a decomposition such that R1 Ç R2 = f then the decomposition is
(A) not in 2NF
(B) in 2NF but not in 3NF
(C) in 3NF but not in 2NF
(D) in both 2NF and 3NF
Answer: D
26.    Which one of the following is not a Client-Server application ?
(A) Internet chat           (B) Web browser
(C) E-mail                      (D) Ping
Answer: B
27.    Which of the following concurrency protocol ensures both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock :
I. 2-phase locking
II. Time phase ordering
(A) Both I & II    (B) II only
(C) I only           (D) Neither I nor II
Answer: B
28.    Match the following :
List – I                           List – II
a. Expert systems        i. Pragmatics
b. Planning                   ii. Resolution
c. Prolog                        iii. Means-end analysis
d. Natural language
processing                    iv. Explanation facility
Codes :
      a    b   c   d
(A) iii   iv   i    ii
(B) iii   iv   ii    i
(C) i    ii    iii   iv
(D) iv  iii    ii    i
Answer: D
29.    STRIPS addresses the problem of efficiently representing and implementation of a planner. It is not related to which one of the following ?
(A) SHAKEY     (B) SRI
(C) NLP             (D) None of these
Answer: C
30.    Slots and facets are used in
(A) Semantic Networks           (B) Frames
(C) Rules                                  (D) All of these
Answer: B
31.    Consider f(N) = g(N) + h(N) Where function g is a measure of the cost of getting from the start node to the current node N and h is an estimate of additional cost of getting from the current node N to the goal node. Then f(N) = h(N) is used in which one of the following algorithms ?
(A) A* algorithm
(B) AO* algorithm
(C) Greedy best first search algorithm
(D) Iterative A* algorithm
Answer: C
32.    .............. predicate calculus allows quantified variables to refer to objects in the domain of discourse and not to predicates or functions.
(A) Zero-order               (B) First-order
(C) Second-order         (D) High-order
Answer: B
33.    ................ is used in game trees to reduce the number of branches of the search tree to be traversed without affecting the solution.
(A) Best first search
(B) Goal stack planning
(C) Alpha-beta pruning procedure
(D) Min-max search
Answer: C
34.    Consider a uniprocessor system where new processes arrive at an average of five processes per minute and each process needs an average of 6 seconds of service time. What will be the CPU utilization ?
(A) 80 %            (B) 50 %
(C) 60 %            (D) 30 %
Answer: B
35.    Consider a program that consists of 8 pages (from 0 to 7) and we have 4 page frames in the physical memory for the pages. The page reference string is :
1 2 3 2 5 6 3 4 6 3 7 3 1 5 3 6 3 4 2 4 3 4 5 1
The number of page faults in LRU and optimal page replacement algorithms are respectively (without including initial page faults to fill available page frames with pages):
(A) 9 and 6        (B) 10 and 7
(C) 9 and 7        (D) 10 and 6
Answer: B
36.    Which of the following statements is not true about disk-arm scheduling algorithms ?
(A) SSTF (shortest seek time first) algorithm increases performance of FCFS.
(B) The number of requests for disk service are not influenced by file allocation method.
(C) Caching the directories and index blocks in main memory can also help in reducing disk arm movements.
(D) SCAN and C-SCAN algorithms are less likely to have a starvation problem.
Answer: B
37.    ................. maintains the list of free disk blocks in the Unix file system.
(A) I-node                      (B) Boot block
(C) Super block            (D) File allocation table
Answer: C
38.    A part of Windows 2000 operating system that is not portable is
(A) Device Management
(B) Virtual Memory Management
(C) Processor Management
(D) User Interface
Answer: B
39.    Match the following with reference to Unix shell scripts :
List – I               List – II
a. $?                   i. File name of the current script
b. $#                   ii. List of arguments
c. $0                   iii. The number of arguments
d. $*                    iv. Exit status of last command
Codes :
      a    b   c   d
(A) iii    ii   i    iv
(B) ii    iii   i    iv
(C) iv   iii   i    ii
(D) i     iii   i    iv
Answer: C
40.    The advantage of ............... is that it can reference memory without paying the price of having a full memory address in the instruction.
(A) Direct addressing              (B) Indexed addressing
(C) Register addressing         (D) Register Indirect addressing
Answer: D

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